zuoxy
New Member
Posts: 4
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Post by zuoxy on Sept 25, 2015 8:57:48 GMT
Hi,
I want to estimate the variance explained by X chromosome for males and females separately to see whether the X chromosome had discrepancy of contribution on disease susceptibility between males and females. Since the X-inactivation models made thing a little complicated, I am not sure that how to separately assess the contribution of X chromosome on heritability for males and females, respectively. In intuitive, X chromosome for female could be treated as an autosome. Is it proper if I included only males and assign different dosage compensation model ?
Best regards, xiaoyu zuo
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Post by Jian Yang on Sept 27, 2015 11:50:48 GMT
I would not recommend doing that.
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zuoxy
New Member
Posts: 4
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Post by zuoxy on Sept 28, 2015 2:09:22 GMT
Could you please give some advice? For example, in a dataset with only male samples (for some disease there might be only males affected), how to estimate the variance explained by X chromosome? Thanks for your any advices.
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Post by Jian Yang on Sept 28, 2015 14:21:04 GMT
For males, there is no X-inactivation. The GRM = sum{(xij-pi)(xik-pi) / [pi(1-pi)]} where xi (coded as 0 or 1) is the genotype variable for SNP i and pi is the allele frequency.
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